A 34-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of HIV presents for an initial evaluation. He has thick white plaques on the hard palate and buccal mucosa that easily scrape off with a tongue depressor (Figure 1). He denies dysphagia. You make a clinical diagnosis of pseudomembranous candidiasis (thrush). He has never received medications to treat oral candidiasis.
Which one of the following is considered the preferred therapy for the initial treatment of this condition?
Figure 1. Pseudomembranous Candidiasis.
White plaques on buccal mucosa consistent with pseudomembranous candidiasis
Source: photograph from David H. Spach, MD
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Question Last Updated
January 28th, 2025
January 28th, 2025
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