A 34-year-old man with HIV returns to care after a 1-year absence from clinic; he has not been taking antiretroviral therapy for at least 10 months. His CD4 count is now 210 cells/mm3, and examination notes several purple nodular lesions on the upper arm region and chest (Figure 1). The lesions are not painful and have been slowly growing for 2 to 3 months. Biopsy confirms a spindle cell neoplasm with human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) positivity. He has no systemic symptoms or edema. A chest radiograph is obtained and is normal.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this man?
Figure 1. Nodular Purple Plaques on Upper Arm and Chest.
Source: photograph from David H. Spach, MD
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Question Last Updated
January 28th, 2025
January 28th, 2025
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