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Prevention of HIV.

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Nonoccupational Postexposure ProphylaxisQuestion 7/10

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A 36-year-old man is seen in a clinic for evaluation after a condom broke while having receptive anal sex with his male partner who has HIV. They are in a monogamous relationship. The partner with HIV has been taking bictegravir-tenofovir alafenamide-emtricitabine for about 2 years and has consistently had an undetectable HIV RNA level. His last HIV RNA level was undetectable about 6 weeks prior. The man undergoing evaluation for HIV nonoccupational postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) had a negative HIV-1/2 antigen-antibody test about 6 months prior.

Which one of the following should be recommended for this 36-year-old man?

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Question Last Updated
July 5th, 2025

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